One source of contention among many Christian scholars is something known as "the formula of baptism." In other words, what formula should one use when performing a baptism--what words should be spoken? This can get confusing, because of the way baptism is talked about in Scripture (it doesn't help any that there are no quotation marks--more about that later). In Matthew 28:19, Jesus said to baptize in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. In Acts 2:38, Peter said to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. In Acts 8:12, Phillip baptized several people, and in verse 16, it says that those people were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. Later on in that chapter, Philip baptized a eunuch visiting from Ethiopia, and in the next chapter, Ananias baptized Paul, but neither account addresses what formula was used. In Acts 10:48, Peter commanded a group of people to be baptized in the name of the Lord. In Acts 16:33, Paul and Silas baptized the Thessalonian jailer, and his household, but it gives us no indication of what words were used.
So, Jesus said to do one thing, and the Apostles went out and did something else. Not really. There are two (maybe three) schools of thought on this. Some people say that the book of Acts isn't telling us what formula the Apostles used, only that they baptized under the authority given to them by Jesus; in other words, the spoken words were along the lines of Matthew 28:19, but the written description identifies the source of their authority in baptizing. Some of those people say that you shouldn't use the Book of Acts for formula, because no two baptisms in Acts were done the same way (I would have to ask the question, how do you know that Ananias baptized Paul differently than Paul baptized the Thessalonian jailer, but that's just being nit-picky). The remaining school of thought is that Jesus wanted to make sure that the Apostles understood who He was: He told them to use the name, and they baptized in the name that had been given to them, which was Jesus. Peter said in Acts 4:10-12 that the name of Jesus is the only name given among men whereby we must be saved. Apostle Paul tells us in Romans 6, and again in Colossians 2, that baptism allows us to put on the death, burial, and Resurrection of Jesus Christ.
I have heard many people say that 'leaving out' the terms 'Father' and 'Holy Ghost' is to deny the Father and the Holy Ghost (usually by the same people who say that you don't have to baptized to be saved, because 'water' didn't die on the cross for your sins). Jesus said that no man could come to the Father but by Jesus. Why is that? because there is only one God. Keep in mind that the evangelists in the Book of Acts were, with the exception of Paul, men who were taught by Jesus. Do we really think that we understand the teachings of Jesus better than they did? Of course not, but, because there are no quotation marks, we have a hard time being certain what words were actually spoken.
So, Jesus said to do one thing, and the Apostles went out and did something else. Not really. There are two (maybe three) schools of thought on this. Some people say that the book of Acts isn't telling us what formula the Apostles used, only that they baptized under the authority given to them by Jesus; in other words, the spoken words were along the lines of Matthew 28:19, but the written description identifies the source of their authority in baptizing. Some of those people say that you shouldn't use the Book of Acts for formula, because no two baptisms in Acts were done the same way (I would have to ask the question, how do you know that Ananias baptized Paul differently than Paul baptized the Thessalonian jailer, but that's just being nit-picky). The remaining school of thought is that Jesus wanted to make sure that the Apostles understood who He was: He told them to use the name, and they baptized in the name that had been given to them, which was Jesus. Peter said in Acts 4:10-12 that the name of Jesus is the only name given among men whereby we must be saved. Apostle Paul tells us in Romans 6, and again in Colossians 2, that baptism allows us to put on the death, burial, and Resurrection of Jesus Christ.
I have heard many people say that 'leaving out' the terms 'Father' and 'Holy Ghost' is to deny the Father and the Holy Ghost (usually by the same people who say that you don't have to baptized to be saved, because 'water' didn't die on the cross for your sins). Jesus said that no man could come to the Father but by Jesus. Why is that? because there is only one God. Keep in mind that the evangelists in the Book of Acts were, with the exception of Paul, men who were taught by Jesus. Do we really think that we understand the teachings of Jesus better than they did? Of course not, but, because there are no quotation marks, we have a hard time being certain what words were actually spoken.
Posts
No comments:
Post a Comment